Yes,
when lim x->0 f(x) = 1/x , then f(x) = infinity
Not a math person, but have to take this class. I just want someone to look this over and tell me if this is right or not because I am not sure and don't have an answer key.
Here is the problem.
Let f(X) =
Find lim x->0
f(x)
Here is what I do,
Get rid of X-2
Is this the right way? If someone has a minute to look this over, it would be really helpful. Once again, I'm not a math major but have to take some basic concepts of calculus...so it's hard...