Is the inequality "0 <= x <= y < inf " equivalent to just 0 <= x <= y? i.e. the shaded region below y = x in the first quadrant?
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Originally Posted by borracho Is the inequality "0 <= x <= y < inf " equivalent to just 0 <= x <= y? i.e. the shaded region above y = x in the first quadrant? yes, it is the same
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