Quick question: For the integral of f(x) from a to b (b > a), is it possible to switch the limits to be from b to a? Does it require some sign changes?
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Originally Posted by borracho Quick question: For the integral of f(x) from a to b (b > a), is it possible to switch the limits to be from b to a? Does it require some sign changes? yes,
So it makes sense to integral from b to a, even though b is larger?
Originally Posted by borracho So it makes sense to integral from b to a, even though b is larger? yes, it makes sense. just change the sign to switch the limits, and you're fine.
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