Quick question: For the integral of f(x) from a to b (b > a), is it possible to switch the limits to be from b to a? Does it require some sign changes?
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
Originally Posted by borracho Quick question: For the integral of f(x) from a to b (b > a), is it possible to switch the limits to be from b to a? Does it require some sign changes? yes, $\displaystyle \int_a^b f(x)~dx = - \int_b^a f(x)~dx$
So it makes sense to integral from b to a, even though b is larger?
Originally Posted by borracho So it makes sense to integral from b to a, even though b is larger? yes, it makes sense. just change the sign to switch the limits, and you're fine.
View Tag Cloud