How can you show that the f distribution goes to zero as x approaches infinity
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Originally Posted by wantanswers How can you show that the f distribution goes to zero as x approaches infinity If it didn't then the area under the curve could never equal 1 (or any other finite number for that matter). Where are you having trouble in using the pdf to establish this result?
show that the limit is zero
Originally Posted by wantanswers show that the limit is zero Yes, I realise what you want to do. What I'm asking is where are you stuck in using the pdf to do this?
Sketch the graph of the F density function given in Exercise 1. In particular, show that f(x) at first increases and then decreases, reaching a maximum at the mode x = (m - 2)/(m(n + 2)).f(t) converges to 0 as t approaches infinity.
Originally Posted by wantanswers Sketch the graph of the F density function given in Exercise 1. In particular, show thatf(x) at first increases and then decreases, reaching a maximum at the mode x = (m - 2)/(m(n + 2)).f(t) converges to 0 as t approaches infinity. The pdf has the form where is a constant. 1. Solve . I suggest using the quotient rule to get the derivative. 2. I suggest you first substitute some concrete values for and and then attempt taking the limit. This will let you get the feel of things.
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