Originally Posted by

**The0wn4g3** Hmmm, Ok. So seeing as the coefficients for the first 6 derivatives are 1, 1/2, 3/4, 15/8, 105/6, 945/32 I would think the easiest way to express the denominator would just be 1/(2^n). As far as factorials are concerned, we haven't done much beyond having them in infinite series problems... I was thinking a factorial was the only way to gain larger and larger increases in the numerator, but I have no idea as to how to express that.

Hopefully I'm thinking in the right direction?

Thanks!