If il holomorphic , it will be true also for , so that can be written as…
But , so that all the in (1) are real. Since for (1) is …
I'm a little stuck with this exercise.
Let be a holomorphic function which satisfies . I want to show that
We do have a non-discrete set on which this identity holds, so if both functions were holomorphic, the proof was complete using the identity theorem.
But why are the functions and holomorphic?