Hi everyone, this is probably an easy question but I'm having trouble on the wording of the proof.

Let f be continuous at x=c and f(c) > 1

Show that there exists an r > 0 such that $\displaystyle \forall x \in B(c,r) \bigcap D : f(x) > 1$

Like I said, probably easy, but I don't know how to show it on paper.