I have an idea of the concept this problem is trying to ask but I can't quite figure out how to solve it.
Given that:
integral from 0 to 3 f(x) dx= integral from 0 to 1 f(x) dx + integral from 2 to 1 f(x)dx + integral from 2 to 3 f(x)dx
Find integral from 1 to 2 f(x)dx
I don't really know how to think of it. I know an integral equals area under the curve but can't really see what else i'm missing.
Hi swimmer girl:
integral from 0 to 3 f(x) dx= integral from 0 to 1 f(x) dx + integral from 2 to 1 f(x)dx + integral from 2 to 3 f(x)dx
Find integral from 1 to 2 f(x)dx
the previous post should have given u a clue on how to solve this:
0 to 3 f(x)dx - 0 to 1 f(x)dx - 2 to 3 f(x)dx = integral from 2 to 1 f(x)dx
so the integral from 1 to 2 f(x)dx = -(left hand side of previous equation)
This should clear things up. I'm new to this forum so im not sure how to use the equation editor.