hello, so i'm reviewing the chapter on absolute and conditional divergence, and this chapter has me completely baffled.
are p-series not always applicable?
because, for example,
ace of n = 1/n^(1/2)
converges, even though p=1/2 < 1.
but at the same time,
is divergent because the p-series somehow applies to this one and not that one.
are p-series only applicable for non-alternating series? when does the leibniz rule override the p-series rule?
converges. does that mean
andy why is ace of n called a sequence that converges to zero when it is NOT alternating and is therefore supposed to diverge?
i'm very confused.