f(x) and g(x) are differentiable on 0 f(0)=g(0)=0 because i can use (sin x)/x=1 here is it ok??
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Originally Posted by transgalactic f(x) and g(x) are differentiable on 0 f(0)=g(0)=0 because i can use (sin x)/x=1 here is it ok?? No because is permitted by your conditions, and so if then the limit in the middle is CB
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