I'm working through an example following Leibniz rule...but havning trouble following it:
using Leibniz's Rule:
So just looking at the first integral,
I don't understand the b'(x)f(x,b(x)) part of the rule. Here b(x) = x so b'(x) = 1. But for f(x,b(x)) this would become f(x,x) right? I'm not sure why this is the same as y(x) though??
Thanks in advance!