As for your last question, put thus Hence, by using the FTC we have which leads the same result.
evaluate integrals:
{ (pie/2,0) ( (1+cos2t)/2 )dt
cos2t = 2 (cost)^2 - 1
so,
{ (pie/2,0) (cost)^2 dt
but how do you approach this problem after this step?
i forgot the anti derivative of (cost)^2 ...someone help ~ do it for me so i can see
thx
By editing your original question multiple times the replies that you get make no sense to someone tying to read and follow the thread. This is annoying and insulting to the members of MHF.
Do not edit your question once you get replies. If you have new questions, ask them in a new thread. If you have follow-up questions, ask them in the same thread - do NOT edit your original question to ask them.
This thread is closed.