Thread: prove using integration by parts

I tried doing this, but ended up at a dead end.

Use integration by parts to show that the integral from 0 to 1 of f''(x)g(x)dx = the integral from 0 to 1 of f(x)g''(x)dx.

suppose f(0)=g(0)=0 and f(1)=g(1)=0. give examples for g(x) and f(x).

Are suppositions of the first problem?

With integration by parts, we obtain a new integral by integrating one factor and differentiating the other. It's a way to bump one factor up and the other down, so to speak. For example,



The problem given can be solved by integrating and differentiating twice.