1=<k=<n find of: the first : the second is:
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The first function k-derivate is . The second involves a lots of fun because you'll have to do the same with a product !
what is the general way you found this result?? what is the derivative of absolute value function??
how you find the n'th derivative did you use macloren series formula ??
Originally Posted by Abu-Khalil The first function k-derivate is . The second involves a lots of fun because you'll have to do the same with a product ! how you got this solution??
when i use leibnitz formula for the second question: what to do next??
Last edited by transgalactic; Feb 9th 2009 at 07:49 AM.
Originally Posted by transgalactic how you got this solution?? Just observing what happened every time i derivated the function and tried to make a rule.
what about the solution i proposed??
Originally Posted by transgalactic its similar to when i use leibnitz formula in this case g(x)=1 so by this solution i just need to input f(x) there but it differs your solution?? is this a correct way??
Originally Posted by Abu-Khalil The first function k-derivate is . The second involves a lots of fun because you'll have to do the same with a product ! i need the n'th derivative not the k'th in terms of n how to change that??
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