i am given that prove that there is a solution for 0<x<1 using roll theorem
Last edited by transgalactic; Feb 5th 2009 at 10:45 PM.
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Originally Posted by transgalactic i am given that prove that there is a solution for 0<x<1 using roll theorem Consider the function . Notice that . Now apply Rolle's theorem and get for some .
if i put x=1 on your function f(1) doesnt equal zero how you get f(1)=0 ??
Originally Posted by transgalactic how you get f(1)=0 ?? That is the hypothesis you were given.
i cant see the equation that if i will put x=1 i will get 0 ?
there is no such hypothesis in the posted question ??
Originally Posted by transgalactic there is no such hypothesis in the posted question ?? That is the hypothesis.
Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker That is the hypothesis. so its only an assumption its not a fact??
Originally Posted by transgalactic so its only an assumption its not a fact?? You are given this assumption part of the problem.
ok if f(0)=f(1) then there is a point c for which f'(c)=0 0<c<1 but its not a solution for f(x) its an extreme point ??
Originally Posted by transgalactic ok if f(0)=f(1) then there is a point c for which f'(c)=0 0<c<1 but its not a solution for f(x) its an extreme point It is a solution to (with ). But . Thus, you found a solution to the polynomial equation .
so you take a function which is an anti derivative of my given equation that i need find solution to. so the extreme point of f(x) is the solution of f'(x) thanks
Yes, finally you understand.
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