Originally Posted by

**ajj86** This question has three individual questions to it, so I'll post them as b,c and d. The instructions say to decide which of the following conjectures are true and which are false. Supply a proof for those that are valid and a counterexample for each that is not valid. Here they are:

b. If fn --> f uniformly on A and g is a bounded function on A, then fn*g --> fg uniformly on A.

c. If fn --> f uniformly on a set A, and if each fn is bounded on A, then f must also be bounded.

d. If fn --> f uniformly on a set A, and if fn --> f uniformly on a set B, then fn --> f uniformly on A U B.