1) explain geometrically why the integral from 1 to 2 of x^2 dx equals the integral from 0 to 2 of x^2 dx minus the integral from 0 to 1 of x^2 dx and show that can be writen as the integral from 1 to 2 of x^2 dx = the integral from 1 to 0 of x^2 dx + the integral from 0 to 2 of x^2 dx

AND...

2) find a E (0, 2pi] such that the integral from 0 to a of sin x dx = 0

THANKS FOR THE HELP!!!