I just want to quickly check....
I used the integral test to check if $\displaystyle \sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{nln(n)} $converges.... and i found that it does. Can someone verify this? Thanks
Ok now, I've got a problem...
the integral equals => $\displaystyle ln(ln(x)$ with infinity and 2 being the bounds
therefore, $\displaystyle ln(ln(\infty)) - ln(ln(2))$
ln(ln(2)) is a value. Thus even if $\displaystyle ln(ln(\infty))$ does diverge, ln(ln(2)) will converge..... so does this change things?