Can someone show me how you'd prove: using Maclaurin's theorem please?
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First, can you tell me what is the MacLaurin series for ln(x+1)?
For any we can find between and so that: Since the second derivative is negative. Therefore, for .
Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker For any we can find between and so that: Since the second derivative is negative. Therefore, for . I think it's important to say that Obvious to most but not all
Another proof: For each it's Hence
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