The sum of two finite numbers is finite. Both and are finite, so is finite. Perhaps there is a more 'professional' way of doing this, but wording it like this seems sufficient.

Results 1 to 4 of 4

- December 22nd 2008, 07:37 AM #1

- Joined
- Nov 2008
- Posts
- 461

## a < oo; b<oo => a+b < oo

Hello!

Im not in a hurry, but I dont know where to post this (easy) question.

I know this:

(Fourier transform)

Now I want to show that

I guess this is true, because I think it is obvious, but isn't there a professional proof on this?

What do you think?

Any comments would be much appreciated.

Best regards,

Rapha

- December 22nd 2008, 09:36 AM #2

- December 22nd 2008, 10:29 AM #3

- Joined
- Apr 2005
- Posts
- 17,005
- Thanks
- 2021

- December 22nd 2008, 07:07 PM #4

- Joined
- Nov 2008
- Posts
- 461