The sum of two finite numbers is finite. Both and are finite, so is finite. Perhaps there is a more 'professional' way of doing this, but wording it like this seems sufficient.

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- Dec 22nd 2008, 08:37 AM #1

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## a < oo; b<oo => a+b < oo

Hello!

Im not in a hurry, but I dont know where to post this (easy) question.

I know this:

(Fourier transform)

Now I want to show that

I guess this is true, because I think it is obvious, but isn't there a professional proof on this?

What do you think?

Any comments would be much appreciated.

Best regards,

Rapha

- Dec 22nd 2008, 10:36 AM #2

- Dec 22nd 2008, 11:29 AM #3

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- Dec 22nd 2008, 08:07 PM #4

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