Hey guys,
How do I prove that (1/nx) --> 0 pointwise but not uniformly on (0,1) as n tends to infinity.
thanks in advance, I appreciate your help.
I think that's just a formatting code that's no longer used - nothing mathematical about it. Here's CB's reply without the "br" formatting codes:
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On and any ,
which proves pointwise convergence.
For uniform convergence for we need to find an N such that for all :
But for where which contradicts what would have to be true for uniform convergence to hold.
CB
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By the way, why did you resurrect this 4-year-old thread?
- Hollywood