Hey guys,

How do I prove that (1/nx) --> 0 pointwise but not uniformly on (0,1) as n tends to infinity.

thanks in advance, I appreciate your help.

Printable View

- December 7th 2008, 03:26 PMthahachainaInfinite series (Analysis)
Hey guys,

How do I prove that (1/nx) --> 0 pointwise but not uniformly on (0,1) as n tends to infinity.

thanks in advance, I appreciate your help. - December 7th 2008, 08:57 PMCaptainBlack
- November 14th 2012, 12:13 PMdave0147Re: Infinite series (Analysis)
I'm lost again! What is < br >?

- November 17th 2012, 02:09 AMhollywoodRe: Infinite series (Analysis)
I think that's just a formatting code that's no longer used - nothing mathematical about it. Here's CB's reply without the "br" formatting codes:

-------------------------

On and any ,

which proves pointwise convergence.

For uniform convergence for we need to find an N such that for all :

But for where which contradicts what would have to be true for uniform convergence to hold.

CB

-------------------------

By the way, why did you resurrect this 4-year-old thread?

- Hollywood