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Originally Posted by petter Calculate : Consider that , and since converges, we can state that converges uniformly. So . Can you go from there?
EDIT: Ill finish it.
So rewrite this integral as
Now since on those intervals one of the functions is greater than one we have that both limits go to zero.
Last edited by Mathstud28; November 27th 2008 at 08:47 AM.
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