What would be the easiest way to prove that the lim (as n approaches infinity) of (2)/(n+1)=0.
Is identical to the sequence,
Now the numerator is,
Since, lim (1/n)--->0
So too, lim 2(1/n)---0 by constant function rule.
Next, the demonator is,
But, lim 1=1 and lim (1/n)=0
Thus by the rule of seuqnces addition,
lim (1+1/n) exists and is, 1+0=1 (not equal to zero)
Thus, by the rule of sequnces division,