It asks me to show that the nth Maclaurin Polynomial for exp(x) is </= to exp(x) for x>0. I understand this as a theory, as you can only go so far with the Maclaurin Polynomial, whearas exp(x) goes infinitely far. I think this is what the question is getting at, and would much appreciate any help on how I would start to prove this.

Many thanks,

Eloise