Is sequence or null? Please explain.

I'm sorry if i've upset anyone by not using latex... it was my first time using this forum...and i had no idea of the house rules... please forgive.

Also, i hope you all can still help me :)

Thanks

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- October 25th 2008, 07:47 PMtsal15null sequence
Is sequence or null? Please explain.

I'm sorry if i've upset anyone by not using latex... it was my first time using this forum...and i had no idea of the house rules... please forgive.

Also, i hope you all can still help me :)

Thanks - October 25th 2008, 08:36 PMJhevon
- October 25th 2008, 08:51 PMtsal15
if we look at them as ratio polynomials, then neither will converge....I think they will diverge from zero... am I correct?

Thanks - October 25th 2008, 08:55 PMThePerfectHacker
- October 27th 2008, 07:49 PMtsal15
- October 27th 2008, 08:05 PMThePerfectHacker
Yes. (Clapping)

- October 27th 2008, 09:57 PMtsal15
so does that mean was the null sequence or do we assume is almost zero therefore we will considerate zero and thus both and are null sequences?

Thanks so much Mr. PerfectHacker (Wink) - October 28th 2008, 08:04 AMJhevon
the limit has to be zero for it to be a null sequence. so isn't a null sequence

going back to what i said about the ratio of polynomials.

here are some rules you should get familiar with:

lets say you are given a ratio of polynomials and you want to find the infinite limit.

if the highest degree of the numerator is the same of the denominator, then the limit as to the ratio of the coefficients. (i hope you noted that when you got 1/4000)

the the degree in the denominator is greater than that of the numerator, then the ratio goes to zero as

if the degree of the numerator is greater than that of the denominator, then the limit as goes to , depending on the sign of the polynomials as x gets large - October 28th 2008, 08:26 PMtsal15
This doesn't seem to make sense to me...

Are you trying to say that because the degrees (or powers) are the same the limit equals the ratio/fraction as http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...cc035c3f-1.gif? If I've understood it wrong, correct me please? (Happy)

Everything else makes sense. thanks heaps Jhevon - October 29th 2008, 05:20 PMJhevon
the degrees of the original function, of course.

i am talking about this:

the highest power in the numerator and denominator is 2 for both. so the infinite limits, as , goes to the ratio of the coefficients of the highest power. namely 1 in the numerator, and 4000 in the denominator. hence you get 1/4000 as your limit - October 29th 2008, 07:21 PMtsal15
YES YES YES I GET IT NOW!!!!!!!!!!

THANK YOU, THANK YOU, THANK YOU, THANK YOU, THANK YOU (Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow) (Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Bow)(Clapping)(Clap ping)(Clapping)(Clapping)(Clapping)(Clapping)(Clap ping)(Clapping)(Clapping)