f(x) = integral from 0 to x
((cos(t)-1)/(t^2))
I took the known taylor series of cos(t)
= Sigma n=0 to infinity
((-1)^n t^2n))
2n! t^2
and moved the t^2 to the t exponential
((-1)^n t^2n-2))
2n!
What would the next step be?
If I take the integral...
((-1)^n x^2n-1))
2n!(2n-1)
from n=1 to infinity
Is this correct?
Thanks.