# give an example of this claim

• Oct 19th 2008, 11:33 AM
szpengchao
give an example of this claim
$f_{n}$ converges uniformly to f

$g_{n}$ converges uniformly to g

show that pointwise product $g_{n}f_{n}$ does not converge uniformly to gf
• Oct 19th 2008, 12:30 PM
batman
fn=gn=x+1/n should work I think
• Oct 19th 2008, 12:44 PM
szpengchao
no
i dont think it works, if u try to draw its graph, it converges to fg!
• Oct 19th 2008, 01:20 PM
batman
yes, pointwise... not uniformly.