That's because the indefinite form is...ugly. I don't think it has a closed form. If this is supposed to be a definite integral, though, you may be able to calculate an exact value.Originally Posted by v71
-Dan
Topsquark is correct.
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It is a famous case that,
is non-elementary.
We shall convert this integral into this form.
For simplicity sake we shall use , thus,
Manipulate it as,
Let, (going to apply the substitution rule)
then,
Thus,
If you use integration by parts with,
and
Then,
We have converted this integral into an integral which has no elementary anti-derivative. This confirms topsquarks guess.