Actually I have 2 questions?
1) Prove that the integral of (df/dx) from a to be is equal to f(b) - f(a) using the definition of Riemann Integration and the definition of derivative.
I tried using the antiderivative proof but I dont think that is the right direction on for this one.
2) Prove that the integral of f(x)= x^2 sin(1/x) on the interval (-pi, pi) is beteen -2pi^3/3 and 2pi^3/3.
Bit clueless on this one.