Hi guys,

I'm a little bit confused over how to apply the Mean Value Theorem to this particular problem.

Suppose f is a function such that f'(x)=1/x for all x>0. Prove that if f(1)=0, then f(xy)=f(x)+f(y) for all x,y >0.

Thanks in advance.

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- Sep 18th 2008, 08:01 AMHweengeeProof using Mean Value Theorem
Hi guys,

I'm a little bit confused over how to apply the Mean Value Theorem to this particular problem.

Suppose f is a function such that f'(x)=1/x for all x>0. Prove that if f(1)=0, then f(xy)=f(x)+f(y) for all x,y >0.

Thanks in advance. - Sep 18th 2008, 09:17 AMThePerfectHacker
- Sep 18th 2008, 10:00 AMHweengee
"http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...09c4391d-1.gif is konstant on http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...cc47912d-1.gif so http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...a6f6f078-1.gif for some http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...b010bac8-1.gif. "

Do you mean F'_y(x) = 0 --> F_y(x) = k for some k in R? Sorry but I'm still a little confused. - Sep 18th 2008, 10:10 AMThePerfectHacker
- Sep 19th 2008, 05:16 AMHweengee
yes i get it now. thank you very much.