Can someone tell me if my logic behind this question is correct

$\displaystyle

y=ln(\tan^2(x))

$

the answer is

$\displaystyle

n\pi/2

$

where 'n' is any integer

logic: since arctangent is the inverse of tangent and

$\displaystyle

-\pi/2 \le arctan \le \pi/2

$

multiplying these boundaries by tan would result in a discontinuity