I had a crack at it and got this far:
There's probably a better way of doing it than this (mainly because this didn't get an answer).
hope this helps......somehow.
If the right side of the equation dy/dx = f(x,y) can be expressed as a function of the ratio y/x only, then the equation is said to be homogeneous.
(1)
That one was easy.
(2)
How do I show that this is homogeneous? I know there is a simple way, but I can't remember for the life of me. Thanks!