Alright. Would I multiply the bottom part by [1-cos(x)]? Here's what I tried: Now I split these up into two integrals: ....am I right?.....or where did I go wrong. Thank you.
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It can be shown that: Basically, yeah you're good
Hello, Originally Posted by RedBarchetta Alright. Would I multiply the bottom part by [1-cos(x)]? Here's what I tried: Now I split these up into two integrals: ....am I right?.....or where did I go wrong. Thank you. Bravo ! Your answer is correct. if you want to transform it into tan(x/2) : Is there anything you can do ?
Originally Posted by RedBarchetta Alright. Would I multiply the bottom part by [1-cos(x)]? Here's what I tried: Now I split these up into two integrals: ....am I right?.....or where did I go wrong. Thank you. The easier way: using the double angle formula . Therefore your integral becomes .
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