1. 2. Sorry, I don't even know where to start..
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Originally Posted by Pisces 1. Note, . But . Thus, by sequeeze theorem we have . 2. This is similar. Try it.
wow, that looks so simple.. so does this look about right?
Originally Posted by Pisces wow, that looks so simple.. so does this look about right? not exactly. with that inequality, it would be best for you to use the squeeze theorem here, which you did not as TPH did, consider
I'm confused. Could you give me a hint? edit: im not even sure i understand how he did the first one.
Last edited by Pisces; Sep 1st 2008 at 05:35 PM.
Originally Posted by Pisces I'm confused. Could you give me a hint? edit: im not even sure i understand how he did the first one. now take the limit of that system you should look up the squeeze theorem
I see the theorem, and I understand h(x)<=f(x)<=g(x) and if the limit of h(x)=0 and limit of g(x)=0 then the limit of f(x)=0.. but all this other stuff isn't really clicking. edit: plz help I am really confused. is that not what I did?
Last edited by Pisces; Sep 1st 2008 at 07:10 PM.
Originally Posted by Pisces 2. I think this is wrong unless we have for all real number , .
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