can anyone tell me the inverse laplace transform of a constant??? Asap... urgently required....
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Originally Posted by 000 can anyone tell me the inverse laplace transform of a constant??? Asap... urgently required.... $\displaystyle LT^{-1}[1] = \delta (t)$ where $\displaystyle \delta (t)$ is the Dirac delta function.
can u tell me how that happened???
Originally Posted by 000 can u tell me how that happened??? Because: $\displaystyle (\mathcal{L}\ \delta)(s)=\int_0^{\infty} \delta(t)e^{-st}\ dt=\left. e^{-st}\right|_{t=0}=1$ (works better with the two-sided transform though) RonL
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