I'm trying to solve the following integral
int_0^{+infintity} 1/(1+a^2*x^2)*exp(-b^2*x^2)*cos(c*x) dx
where a,b and c are real.
thanks a lot
Marco
I can do little more than show it converges, are you sure it is integralbe? Have you tried differentiation under the integral sign after a sub of ?
So
Or in other words
and obviously since
Now
Let
So
And
and
So we have
Therefore
So we can finally conclude that
Furthermore we see that
Hope this has been some help.