I need to proove (in a formal way) in a formal way that when n=>infinity, lim (n^n)/((n!)^2)=0
if someone can hekp i would relly appriciate it...
Omri
NonCommonAlg's way is fine, but if you haven't done series yet I would use Stirlings approximation.
The two ways to use it would be to use substitution or use it as a mean of finding two bounding functions for sufficently large n and go the Squeeze Theorem route.