Halllo

I need to proove (in a formal way) in a formal way that when n=>infinity, lim (n^n)/((n!)^2)=0

if someone can hekp i would relly appriciate it...

Omri

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- Jun 30th 2008, 06:32 PMomrimaleklimits problem
Halllo

I need to proove (in a formal way) in a formal way that when n=>infinity, lim (n^n)/((n!)^2)=0

if someone can hekp i would relly appriciate it...

Omri - Jun 30th 2008, 07:00 PMNonCommAlg
- Jun 30th 2008, 07:51 PMMathstud28
NonCommonAlg's way is fine, but if you haven't done series yet I would use Stirlings approximation.

The two ways to use it would be to use substitution or use it as a mean of finding two bounding functions for sufficently large n and go the Squeeze Theorem route.