Another limit question
I know this is very intuitive but I just wanted to make sure.
Along the y-axis we have
Now along the parabola
Which does not exist.
So then just to make sure, I can say that since
does not exist right?
Thanks in advance,
Are you saying it isn't zero?
Originally Posted by topsquark
(Ahem!) I read the numerator as adding, not multiplying. (Doh)
Originally Posted by Mathstud28
If I am understanding you correctly, you are right, the limit does not exist because it approaches different values along different paths.
Here is an example:
The domain of said function consists of all points in the xy-plane for the point (0,0). To show that the limit approaches (0,0) does not exist, consider approaching (0,0) along two different paths. Along the x-axis, every point has the form (x,0) and the limit is 1.
If (x,y) approaches (0,0) along y=x, we get 0
This means that in any open disc centered at (0,0) there are points (x,y) where the function takes on the value 1, and other places where it has value 0.
Therefore, it does not have a limit as
Now, we can conclude that the limit does not exist because we found two different values for two different approaches. If two approaches had given the same limit, we still could not have concluded the limit exists.
To form this conclusion, we must show the limit is the same along all possible approaches.
I am sure you already knew this.
Here is something else:
In this case, the limits of the num. and den. are both 0, so we can not determine the existence of a limit by taking the limits of the num. and den. separately and dividing.
Then, in a neighborhood, , about (0,0), you have
, and it
follows that, for
Therefore, hence, we can choose
and conclude that
I hope you liked this little tutorial, though, you are probably already familiar.
Indeed I was! But repetition never hurt anything (Nod)....unless its Shakespeare (Smirk)
Originally Posted by galactus