Hello This can look like a stupid question, but I just can't see the trick (or maybe because I'm up since 5:30am, I'm too tired to think correctly...) Prove : Thanks
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By the Binomial Theorem: Now prove that: Remember that
Another way: for all naturals n Thus: Then:
Another way. ( is unit circle). Thus, Geometric series, . Now use residue theorem and this integral calculates to .
Originally Posted by PaulRS Now prove that: Hmm, that's what I was struggling with.. I think I've understood ^^ It's all a matter of denominator ~ Pooh The other methods don't correspond to the general method expected by the paper, but it's quite interesting Thanks guys
let Note that: Thus: let we have: Thus our solution satisfies the differential equation: which is quite easy to solve (we define )
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