f(x) = p(1/x) * e^(-1/x^2) , x/=0
0 , x=0
p(t) is a nonzero polynomial in t
prove this is differentiable everywhere, i cant prove this limit::
limit( (p(1/h)*e^(-1/h^2))/h, h goes to 0)
No I have always liked power series more it was just I was not adept enough at LaTeX yet to use them...now I am...and yes you could go from there...technically the answer would be ∞ due to an infinite amount of ∞ + an infinite amount of 0's...but as you pointed out I read the question wrong so that limit does not apply