Originally Posted by

**p00ndawg** naw I dont need a lot of help, but I got a test tomorrow and just have a few holes i needed some filling on.

you say $\displaystyle 1/n $ is divergent because of the p series, but isnt the series for it being greater than or less than 1? if its a big proof just reply with because I said so, ill understand.

but, so are you saying that if a question or function reduces through some kind of comparison or test, like the integral or nth term test, then if it does reduce to $\displaystyle 1/n $ it would actually converge instead of diverge?