so the book is telling me to use the ratio test...
and you get
so now I guess how would ln(k+1)/lnk go to 1 would be my basic question...
all I know is is that ln(n)/n goes to 0 as n goes to infinity but i haven't seem something like this before..
if you are asking how ? it is either logical conisdering with huge numbers +1 doesnt matter or applying l'hopitals we get and either knowing the leading coefficent trick or applying l'hopital's again we get