Hello,

It depends on where f(x) ~ g(x)

And what does f(x) ~ g(x) mean ? It means that there exists such as , where tends to be very small as approaching the domain where f(x) ~ g(x).

This doesn't impeach f(x) to be inferior to g(x)...

Results 1 to 6 of 6

- April 5th 2008, 07:34 PM #1

- April 5th 2008, 10:30 PM #2

- April 6th 2008, 06:59 AM #3

- April 6th 2008, 07:02 AM #4

- April 6th 2008, 07:30 AM #5
## I dont know if this is a good example

but what relating to the classic ....I am pretty sure that ...but assuming the limit exists that then ...I am not sure that is the best example but Its the only one I can think of right now...so would you still agree with the original inequality?

- April 6th 2008, 07:33 AM #6

- Joined
- Nov 2005
- From
- New York City
- Posts
- 10,616
- Thanks
- 10

Another example is Stirling approximation.