Prove that
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Isnt this just (1/2)!= (-1/2)?= ?
Sorry I meant isnt it just gammafunction(-1/2)?
so it is which is pi^(1/2)*erfi(ln(x)^(1/2))*ln(x)^(1/2)/(-ln(x))^(1/2) evaluated from 0 to one?
Originally Posted by Krizalid Prove that using the sub we could do the same sub with and get so Convert to polar coordinates the region of integration is the 1st quadrant so we get... so
Yeah, that's the standard solution. ----- By considering for a direct application of Beta function shows that Eventually, for we have this 'cause we're integrating a semicircle whose radius is The conclusion follows.
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