use integration by partsOriginally Posted byNichelle14

integral of {x}*{f'(x)*f(x)} dx from a to b

={x*f^2(x)/2 from a to b} - {integral of 1*f^2(x)/2 dx from a to b}

={b*f^2(b)- a*f^2(a)} -2/2

=b*0 -a*0 -1

= -1

Results 1 to 3 of 3

- June 1st 2006, 04:28 PM #1

- Joined
- Jun 2006
- Posts
- 53

- June 1st 2006, 07:20 PM #2

- June 1st 2006, 07:54 PM #3

- Joined
- May 2006
- From
- Lexington, MA (USA)
- Posts
- 11,989
- Thanks
- 817