I have this question:

If a(x) = -x and b(x) = x and if a(x) <= f(x) <= b(x) for all x in [0,1], does it follow that f is riemann integrable for [0,1]?

My textbook has the following squeeze theorem for integrals:

Let f be a function on [a,b]. Then f is riemann integrable on [a,b] if and only if for every epsilon > 0, there exist functions a and b riemann integrable on [a,b] with a(x) <= f(x) <= b(x) for all x in [a,b] and such that

integral from a to b of (b(x) - a(x)) < epsilon.

Since the integral from 0 to 1 of (2x) = 1, which can be made less than epsilon, doesn't this imply the function f is riemann integrable for [0,1]?

Thanks for any help in advance.