The integral from 0 to 1 of x^2 is equivalent to the integral from 0 to 1 of the sum of the first n squares formula (x(2x+1)(x+1)/6) does anyone know if this is some special occurrence (it's only true for 0 to 1 as far as I can tell).
The integral from 0 to 1 of x^2 is equivalent to the integral from 0 to 1 of the sum of the first n squares formula (x(2x+1)(x+1)/6) does anyone know if this is some special occurrence (it's only true for 0 to 1 as far as I can tell).