The integral from 0 to 1 of x^2 is equivalent to the integral from 0 to 1 of the sum of the first n squares formula (x(2x+1)(x+1)/6) does anyone know if this is some special occurrence (it's only true for 0 to 1 as far as I can tell).

Printable View

- Mar 6th 2008, 08:55 PMpDeCrunchSum of squares from 0 to 1
The integral from 0 to 1 of x^2 is equivalent to the integral from 0 to 1 of the sum of the first n squares formula (x(2x+1)(x+1)/6) does anyone know if this is some special occurrence (it's only true for 0 to 1 as far as I can tell).

- Mar 7th 2008, 05:20 AMwingless
Hmm..

http://img528.imageshack.us/img528/4585/graphze8.png

I guess this is only a coincidence.

I don't know, such things are likely to happen with numbers 0 and 1. - Mar 7th 2008, 05:26 AMcolby2152
Coincidence at best.